Bộ đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2022 – 2023

Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 7 học kì 1 năm 2022 – 2023 gồm 4 đề kiểm tra chất lượng cuối học kì 1 có đáp án chi tiết kèm theo bảng ma trận đề thi.

Đề thi học kì 1 lớp 7 môn tiếng Anh được biên soạn với cấu trúc cả trắc nghiệm và tự luận, bám sát nội dung chương trình học trong sách giáo khoa Tiếng Anh 7 tập 1. Bộ đề thi học kì 1 Anh 7 là tài liệu hữu ích giúp quý thầy cô và các em ôn tập củng cố kiến thức, chuẩn bị sẵn sàng cho kì thi học kì 1 lớp 7 sắp tới. Ngoài ra các bạn xem thêm một số đề thi học kì 1 lớp 7 năm 2022 như đề thi học kì 1 môn Ngữ văn, Vật lý, Địa lý, Sinh học, Lịch sử, GDCD, Công nghệ. Vậy sau đây là 4 đề kiểm tra cuối học kì 1 môn tiếng Anh 7 năm 2022, mời các bạn cùng theo dõi và tải tại đây.

Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 7 học kì 1 năm 2022 – Đề 1

Ma trận đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 7 học kì 1

Theme Unit 1-6	Recognition			Understanding			Application				Total/ Weighting
							Low level		High level
	MCQ	Compose		MCQ	Compose		MCQ	Compose	MCQ	Compose
I.Listening				Listen and fill in the gaps
Questions				4	6						6
Points				1.0	1.5						2.5 (15%)
II.Phonetics	Choose the word that has underlined part pronounced differently.			Choose the word whose stress pattern is not the same as that of the other
Questions	2				2						4
Points	0.5				0.5						1.0(10%)
III.Language focus	– Comparisons – Agreement – a/an/some/ any -Present perfect – past simple – gerunds – Vocabulary – How much/How many			Make letter A, B, C or D to indicate the part that is incorrect			-Use the correct verb, word
Questions	6			2				4			12
Points	1.5			0.5				1.0			3,0(30%)
IV.Reading				Read the text and fill in the blank			Read a passage and answer the questions
Questions								4		4	8
Points								1,0		1.0	2,0(20%)
V.Writing							– Rewrite the sentences without changing to the first		-Write full sentences using the suggested words and phrases given
Questions								4		2	6
Points								1,0		0.5	1.5(15%)
Total number of questions	8			6		8		12		6	40
Total number of points	2.0(20%			1.5 (15%)		2,0 (20%)		3.0(30%)	1.5(15%)		10 (100%)

Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 7 học kì 1

PART I. LISTENING:(2.5pts)

A. Listen and write the missing words (1.5 pts)

When you are in Singapore, you can (1)_____________ somewhere by taxi , by bus, or by underground. I myself prefer the underground (2)_____________ it is fast, easy and cheap. There are many (3)______________ and taxis in Singapore and one can not drive along the road quickly and without many stops, especially on the Monday morning. The underground is therefore usually (4)_____________ than taxis or buses. If you do not know Singapore very well, it is (5)_____________ to find the bus you want. You can take a taxi , but it is (6)_____________ expensive than the underground or a bus .

B. Listen then choose the best answer A , B or C (1,0 pt)

1. Which Oscar has Tom Hanks won twice?

A. the best Actor

B. the best Actress

C. the best star

2. What do critics say about Tom Hanks?

A. He isn’t an attractive actor

B. He is one of the best actor

C. He is the most actor.

3. Tom Hanks is…………………… favourite star.

A. Nick’s

B. Nick’s mother’s

C. Nick’s father

4. You’ve Got Mail is one of the biggest comedies of the ……………….

A.1919s

B. 1990s

C. 1980s

PART II. Phonentics (1,0pt)

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others

1. A. game	B. arrange	C. skate	D. cake
2. A. like	B. fish	C. piano	D. badminton
3. A. rest	B. help	C. garden	D. identify
4. A. tutor	B. student	C. university	D. discuss

A. Choose A, B, C, D for each gap in the following sentence.(1.5 pts)

1. She loves ______ flowers and putting them into different vases.

A. buying

B. to buy

C. buy

D. bought

2. My hobby is …………………..dolls

A. collecting

B. collect

C. collects

D .collected

3. They ……………………….that swimming is interesting.

A. like

B. think

C. find

D. make

4. If you have a lot of bottles, dolls, or stamps, your hobby is ……….

A. making model

B. dancing

C. travelling

D. collecting

5. I ………………………… Nha Trang when I was a child.

A. visit

B. visited

C. will visit

D. have visited

6. I didn’t like that book. – ……… .

A. I didn’t, either

B. Neither have

C. I So did I

D. So I did

B. Put the verbs in brackets in the correct tense form ( 1,0pt)

1. Nam looks brown. He (be) on holiday last week.

2. Thu never (eat) ……………….Banh Tet before. She will try some this year

3. Every year, my mother (give)……………………….me a doll on my birthday

4. She likes (cook)………………….very much. She can cook many goods food

C.Make letter A, B, C or D to indicate the part that is incorrect(0.5pt)

1.How many (A) rice do you need(B) ? – Two kilos (C)of(D)rice.

2. My sister’ (A)sappearance is (B)very different with (C) mine.(D)

PART IV. READING: (2,0 pts)

A.Choose the best answer to complete the passage(1.0pt)

Headache is a very common disease. The symptoms (1) ________ a headache are various. People may (2) ________ pains only one side of the head. Sometimes when the pain goes away, the head is sore. People have a headache (3) _________ they work too hard or they are too nervous about something. (4) ________ can help cure the disease but people usually have to do more than taking tablets. They can prevent headaches by changing their diets or their lifestyles or simply by going to bed.

1.A. on

B. in

C. of

D. at

2. A. be

b. have

C. happen

D. take

3. A. when

B. but

C. so

D. and

4. A. Medicine

B. Doctor

C. Sport

D. Fruit

B.Read the text and answer the questions. ( 1,0pt)

People in my city love good food and they often eat three meals a day – breakfast, lunch and dinner. At about seven in the morning, they usually have a light breakfast with a bowl of pho or eel soup with some slices of toast. Sometimes they have a bowl of instant noodles or a plate of sticky rice before going to work. Lunch often starts at about 11.30, and most of them have lunch at home. They often have rice, fish, meat, and vegetables for lunch. Dinner often starts at about 8.00 in the evening. It is the main meal of the day. People in my city often have rice with a lot of fresh vegetables and a lot of seafood or various kinds of meat. Then, they often have some fruit and a glass of green tea. I think food in my city is wonderful. It is light and full of fresh vegetables. It’s healthy and tasty, too.

What do people in Nam’s city have for breakfast?

…………………………………………………………………………………………

What time do they have lunch?

…………………………………………………………………………………………

Which is the main meal of the day?

…………………………………………………………………………………………

Do people in his city have rice with a lot of fresh vegetables and a lot of seafood?

………………………………………………………………………………………

PART IV: WRITING(1,5pts)

A.Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that they mean the same as the original sentences( 1pt ).

1. I didn’t go to school because I was sick.

→I was sick, so ……………………………………………………………………………………………….

2. He is interested in watching TV in the evening

→ He enjoys…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

3. I think that learning English is important.

→I find ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. We have learned English for 3 years.

→We started …………………………………………………………………………..

B. Write full sentences using the suggested words and phrases given : (0,5pt )

1.They / visited / Ha Long Bay / many times.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

2. My hat/ different /Thu’s hat

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

Đáp án đề thi học kì 1 môn tiếng Anh 7

PART I. LISTENING:(2.5pts)

PART II. Phonentics (1,0pt)(0.25 x4= 1pt)

Part III. LANGUAGE FOCUS : (3.0 pts)

A. Choose A, B, C, D for each gap in the following sentence.(1.5 pts)

0.25 x 8= 2pts

B. Put the verbs in brackets in the correct tense form ( 1.0pt )0.25x 4=1.0 pt

C.Make letter A, B, C or D to indicate the part that is incorrect(0.5pt)

1.A 2.C

Part IV. READING: (2.0 pts)

A.Choose the best answer to complete the passage(1.0pt) (0.25x 4)

B.Read the text and answer the questions. ( 1,0 pt)(0.25×4)

1. People in Nam’s city have a light breakfast with a bowl of pho or eel soup with some slices of toast.

2. Lunch often starts at about 11.30

3. Dinner is the main meal of the day.

4. Yes, they do.

PART V. WRITING: (1.5 pts)

A.Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that they mean the same as the original sentences.

( 1,0pt )(0.25 x 4)=1.0 pt

1.This house is different from that one

2. My hat is the same as your hat

3. Lan is not as careful as Nga

4. He thinks playing Games at home interesting

B. Write full sentences using the suggested words and phrases given : (1pt )0.25 x 2= 0.5 pt

1. They have visited Ha Long Bay many times.

2. My hat is different from Thu’s hat

………

Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 7 học kì 1 năm 2022 – Đề 2

Ma trận đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 7 học kì 1

Level Contents	Knowledge		COMPREHEN -SION		Application				Total
					Low		High
	MCQ	CRQ	MCQ	CRQ	MCQ	CRQ	MCQ	CRQ
Listening -Listen and fill in the blanks -Choose the correct statements	4		4		1		1		10
Questions Marks Percent	1 10%		1 10%		0,25 2,5%		0,25 2,5%		2,5 25%
Pronunciation – Language focus – articles – modal verb in conditional sentence type 1 – conditional sentences type 2 – relatives – phrasal verb	4		4		1		1		10
Marks Percent	1 10%		1 10%		0,25 2,5%		0,25 2,5%		2,5 25%
Reading -Read and check true/false. – Read and and answer	2	1	4	1	1			1	10
Marks Percent	0,5 5%	0,25 2,5%	1 10%	0,25 2,5%	0,25 2,5%			0,25 2,5%	2,5 25%
Writing -Rewrite -Sentence building		1		3		5		1	10
Marks Percent		0,25 2,5%		0,75 7,5%		1,25 12,5%		0,25 2,5%	2,5 25%
Questions Marks Percent	12 3.0 30%		16 4.0 40%		8 2.0 20%		4 1.0 10%		40 10 100%

Đề thi học kì 1 Anh 7 năm 2022

PART I. LISTENING

1. Listen and tick Yes or No (1,25pt)

	Yes	No
1. Does Mai do morning exercise?
2. Does she brush your teeth twice a day?
3. Does she eat fast food every day?
4. Does she always wash her hands before meals?
5. Does she play computer games every day?

II.Listen and tick the box, there is an example (1,25pt).

1.What’s Tom playing?

A. He is playing basketball
B. He is watching TV
C. He is playing football.

2. What’s Nick doing?

A. He is talking to his mother.
B. He is playing football with his father
C. He is phoning to a friend

3. What’s Ben doing?

A. He is playing in his bedroom
B He is reading a book
C. He’s sleeping.

4. What’s Kin doing?

A. He is playing table tennis with his friend
B He is playing the piano
C. He’s sleeping.

5. What is Ann painting?

A. Ann is painting a picture of flowwers
B. Ann is reading
C. Ann is painting a monster

II. PART II. PRONUNCIATION – LANGUAGE FOCUS

I. Which has different pronounced with the others? (1m)

1. a. teenager b. together c. guitar d. game

2. a. lunch b. music c. unpopular d. study

3. a. stripe b. tidy c. idea d. circus

4. a. couch b. lunch c. chemistry d. change

II. Choose the best answer: (1,5ms)

1. She learns ( how/ what/when) to use the washing machine

2. Hoa is interested ( on/ in/ at) learning English.

3. Would you like ( go/ to go/ going) to the zoo with me?

4. She ( often does/ does often/ often do) the morning exercise.

5. Let’s ( to stay/ staying/ stay) at home and watch TV.

6. Why don’t you ( asking/ to ask/ ask) me?

PART III. READING

Read the paragraph and do the exercises below it:

Trung is a student in class 7A. His full name is Tran Quoc Trung. He is 13 years old now, but he will be 14 on his next birthday. Trung lives with his parents at 25 Xuan Dieu street. Trung’s house isn’t large but it very comfortable. It has a bright living room, two lovely bedrooms, and a modern bathroom and kitchen.

I.True- False statements:(1,25ms)

_____1-Trung’s middle name is Tran.

_____2-He lives with his parents.

_____3-His house is comfortable but it isn’t large.

_____4-His living room isn’t bright.

_____5- He will be 14 next year.

II.Answer the questions: (1,25ms)

1- Will Trung be 13 on his next birthday?

…………………………………………..

2- How many rooms are there in his house?

…………………………………………..

3- Is Trung’s house large?

……………………………………………………

4- What is his address?

………………………………………

5-Who does he live with?

………………………….

PART IV. WRITING

A. Rewrite these following sentences without changing their meanings:(1m)

1. When is your birthday?

What is……………………………………………….?

2. Let’s play marbles.

What about ………………………………………………?

3. Where do you live?

What’s…………………………………………………………………….?

4. The blue dress is cheaper than the red one

The red dress is…………………………………………………

5. Nam is taller than any students in his class

…………………………………………………………………….

B. Answer about yourself: (1,5ms)

1. What do you usually do at recess?

…………………………………………………………………

2. Do you wear uniform at school?

……………………………………………………………………

3.what is your favorite subject?

………………………………………………………….. …………………..

4. When do you have English?

……………………………………………………………………

5. Do you love english?

……………………………………………………………………

Đáp án đề kiểm tra học kì 1 Anh 7

PART I.Listening(2,5ms)

1. Listen and tick Yes or No (1,25pt)

	Yes	No
1. Does Mai do morning exercise?	V
2. Does she brush your teeth twice a day?	V
3. Does she eat fast food every day?		V
4. Does she always wash her hands before meals?	V
5. Does she play computer games every day?		V

II.Listen and tick the box, there is an example (1,25pt).

C. He is drawing a picture of a bus

A. He is playing

C. He is phoning to a friend

C. He’s sleeping.

A. He is playing table tennis with his

PART II .Vocabulary and Grammar(2,5ms)

I.(1m) 1.a. 2.b. 3.d 4.c.

II.(1,5ms)

1. how 2. in 3. to go 4. often does. 5.stay. 6.ask.

PART III – Reading.(2,5ms)

A. True or False statements(1m)

1. F 2. T 3. T 4. F 5. T

B. Answer the questions(1,5ms)

1. No, he won’t.

2. There are five rooms.

3. Yes, It is.

4. His address at 25 Xuan Dieu street.

5. He lives with his parents

PART IV.Writing(2,5ms)

A. Rewrite these following sentences without changing their meanings:(1pt)

1. What is your date of birth?

2. What about playing marbles?

3. What’s your address ?

4. The red dress is more expensive than the blue one

5. Nam is the tallest students in his class

B. Answer about yourself: (1pt)

1. I usually + ………….

2. Yes, I do

3. My favorite subject is….

4. I have English on + ………………..

5. Ss anwer

………………….

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